Comments on: Differentiate Inverse Cos – Proof

By: trevorpythag

trevorpythag — Mon, 09 Feb 2009 17:51:40 +0000

oops sorry thanks for pointing it out
dave

Barbara — Sun, 08 Feb 2009 22:07:05 +0000

You’ve missed the minus!!!
d/dy(arccos) = – 1/ sq(1-x^2)

Nadya Fermega — Wed, 14 Jan 2009 09:53:40 +0000

@Denaya

No no no, you are wrong Denaya, rohedi’s comment corresponds to your purpose is at this address

when Mr. Rohedi solves f”+f=0

I think you have done big blunder, huahuahau…sorry honey.

Nadya Fermega — Wed, 14 Jan 2009 09:52:15 +0000

@Denaya

No no no, you are wrong Denaya, rohedi’s comment corresponds to your purpose is at this address

when Mr. Rohedi solves f”+f=0

I think you have done big blunder, huahuahau…

Denaya Lesa — Wed, 14 Jan 2009 09:42:33 +0000

Hmm, if you want to know an application of both cos-1(x) and sin-1(x) simultaneously, please read rohedi’s comment on

Denaya Lesa — Wed, 14 Jan 2009 09:20:13 +0000

He he he, I think you must take the following conclusions:

the differentiate of cos-1(x) is dy/dx = – 1/√(1-x2)

while

the differentiate of sin-1(x) is dy/dx = 1/√(1-x2)

How about you all?